More on the varieties of preterists [continued pt2]

Continuing interaction. Greg's response followed by my own:

Hi James,

"I'll need some clarification on which part you would like more comment or references for further reading."

I was thinking of your comment: "given discoveries of more apocalyptic 2TJ texts and an enhanced understanding of the genre in the 20th century"

This would presumably be damaging to, or be against, full preterism and some partial preterism.

"And "failed prophecy" is a bit loaded (this is a quibble), as it belies a lack of contact with the purpose and modus operandi of apocalyptic and an inflation of expectation/anticipation to some kind of measurable prophetic."

Could you expand on this comment?

"Did (early) Paul expect a return of Christ in his lifetime? Almost certainly. - Does this equate to "failed prophecy"? Again, no."

I guess it depends where he got that expectation from, or whether he gives a firm prediction himself. If Jesus predicted a near "end" (ignoring preterist conceptions) and Paul was following the error, then it looks like failed prophecy. Another point here, is that if early Paul expected a near end, well did that influence any of his ethical teaching? Because if so, that teaching would then  seem discredited.

Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom. (Matthew 16:28)

I'm sure you're aware of the end of John. To me, it looks like a very possible attempt to explain away the kind of prediction previously given in the synoptics. It looks like something was expected to happen... but didn't happen.

"I affirm broadly Allison, Ehrman, Schweitzer, Weiss, et al on the Olivet but think this word choice can be unnecessarily inflammatory"

I'm looking at it from the perspective of trying to determine whether or not a religion is likely to be true. So I can't really avoid the category of "failed prophecy". Of course, this is one of the Hebrew Bible's own criteria (Deut. 18) for assessing a supposed prophet, so it seems like a fair standard to apply to Jesus.

But you don't seem to think the term "failed prophecy" is really appropriate in this case, and I have already asked you to expand on that.

"No, I do not off hand, but I'm sure full preterists have found quotes/sources and could provide them here."

I'm not so sure they have anything persuasive.

"Eusebius, for instance, in the late 3rd and 4th centuries claimed past fulfillment of some apocalyptic NT texts, but I have not checked his commentary on the Olivet(s)"

Eusebius applies Daniel 7:13 and Matthew 24:30 to a future 2nd Coming. I would say that, "when He comes in the heavens with power and great glory", is a pretty clear reference to Matthew 24:30.

"We see in part, indeed, now with our own eyes the fulfilment of the holy oracles as to the first Epiphany of our Saviour to man. May it be seen completely as well in His second glorious Advent, when all nations shall see His glory, and when He comes in the heavens with power and great glory."

"For the second Coming shall be glorious, that of which Daniel speaks unfolding and revealing his vision:

9. I saw until the thrones were set, and the Ancient of Days did sit. Thousand thousands ministered to him, and ten thousand times ten thousand stood before him. 13. And, behold, one as a son of man coming with the clouds of heaven. And he came even to the Ancient of Days, 14. and there was given to him rule and honour and a kingdom, and all peoples, tribes, and tongues serve him. His power is an everlasting power, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom shall not be destroyed."

(Eusebius, Demonstratio Evangelica, Book VI, Chapter 25 and Book IX, Chapter 17)

Greg

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My response:

Hi Greg,

>> I was thinking of your comment: "given discoveries of more apocalyptic Second Temple Judaism (2TJ) texts and an enhanced understanding of the genre in the 20th century". This would presumably be damaging to, or be against, full preterism and some partial preterism.

Absolutely. It's pretty damning. This is not to say former generations were not aware of/versed in many of the 2TJ pseudepigrapha and apocalyptic OT and NT, but the progress in understanding over the last century is comparable to the understanding of Hebrew from the time of the Reformation, when scholarship was practically nil in the ANE languages, to the modern era, with its many correctives and superior translations and lexicons. The scholarship is night and day by contrast.

The wealth of material that has been (in some cases literally) unearthed in the late 19th and 20th century, particularly at Qumran, has opened a huge window to provide us an improved view of the 2TJ period, with 'new' apocalyptic texts from the intertestamental and late 1st century period as well as numerous midrash (put simply, a form of expounding commentary) and pesher (an interpretation of texts often applying them to and seeing/predicting their fulfillment in/upon the recipient community). Obviously, this should set off some bells, as we see a very similar appropriation of OT prophetic texts in the NT, particularly in the pattern of pesher (the scholars still debate continually over which portions of the NT represent which genre).

For some accessible and less expensive texts that start at the ground floor and expand on the major issues, I might recommend for further reading volumes by Collins (e.g. _The Apocalyptic Imagination_ and _Daniel: With an Introduction to Apocalyptic Literature_; if you have cash his Hermeneia commentary is worth it, not to mention everything produced by his wife) on the development and common themes to apocalyptic. And Vanderkam (e.g. _The Meaning of the Dead Sea Scrolls_ and _The Dead Sea Scrolls Today_; also _An Introduction to Early Judaism_ for more on the 1st century CE perspective) on the importance of Qumran for our understanding of 2TJ, the sea in which the NT swims.

>> "And "failed prophecy" is a bit loaded (this is a quibble), as it belies a lack of contact with the purpose and modus operandi of apocalyptic and an inflation of expectation/anticipation to some kind of measurable prophetic."

>> Could you expand on this comment?

I'm not sure where you stand, Greg (are you a skeptic of Christianity or just of FP?), but I am a Christian, so to call prophecy 'failed' would mean that God's purposes were not accomplished through a given prophet. So I would deny that. Hopefully I address some of this below, at least to your satisfaction. If not, the resources above and in texts like D. Brent Sandy's _Plowshares & Pruning Hooks: Rethinking the Language of Biblical Prophecy and Apocalyptic_ and G. B. Caird's _The Language and Imagery of the Bible_ would also be helpful.

>> "Did (early) Paul expect a return of Christ in his lifetime? Almost certainly. - Does this equate to "failed prophecy"? Again, no."

>> I guess it depends where he got that expectation from, or whether he gives a firm prediction himself. If Jesus predicted a near "end" (ignoring preterist conceptions) and Paul was following the error, then it looks like failed prophecy. Another point here, is that if early Paul expected a near end, well did that influence any of his ethical teaching? Because if so, that teaching would then  seem discredited.

I would say if there was a concrete measurable prediction that did not take place, then that would probably be a strong candidate for a 'failed prophecy'. But we don't have those failures. Instead, we do have firm predictions of Jesus's death. We also have a predictive prophecy of the destruction of the temple (almost surely at the hands of Romans), and we have a typical apocalyptic framing of that event with end-times consummation language that both a) focuses the audience on the importance of the current conflict by elevating the language to the cosmic and age-consummation perspective, and b) it maps these events into the very timeline of the end, inviting the possibility that this may indeed be the culminating time, the very 'last days'. If you are familiar with apocalyptic, from portions of Isaiah, Zechariah, most of Daniel, and non-canonical 2TJ pseudepigrapha, this is all old hack to you.

Part of the purpose of apocalyptic, with it's unnatural, cosmic, and explosive imagery, is to a) get the audience's attention - normally a call to discipline and holiness in the midst of  - or before the anticipated - extreme persecution, or b) as a desperate wake up call to a wayward (from covenant faithfulness) community, to get them to focus on the current real and deadly tragedy that is unfolding/present. I think absolutely at a minimum Paul, the author of the Apocalypse, and the author of 2 Peter are caught up in this expectation, and rightfully so, because the crisis in the community is very real, and the apostles and prophets speak and write in order to convict and move their audiences. I am afraid if you apply the judgment you are above, you are applying a 'presentist' perspective, going against the Hebraic familiarity with this genre of literature and speech. It is also contrary to the judgment (or lack thereof) that they would have had (and the early church did pardon without incident) on the apostles, which was very much inline with the 2TJ handling of OT consummation and apocalyptic texts (more on this later).

Scholars agree that in the early epistles Paul truly expected to be alive at the parousia, and everyone of merit acknowledges he died before AD 70, yet even the FP would not say Paul is a false prophet when his convictions and expectations for his own lifespan and the nearness of the parousia are not met. Personal conviction of a Holy Spirit led individual does not rise to the level of concrete prophetic utterance, and such a thing is never suggested.

>> I'm sure you're aware of the end of John. To me, it looks like a very possible attempt to explain away the kind of prediction previously given in the synoptics. It looks like something was expected to happen... but didn't happen.

And I think I could probably concede your point that there is a teaching engagement in John 21, but do not see this as a challenge to my defense of the scripture as infallible in the purposes God has for them, but instead as another corrective to perceptions, like the epistles to the Corinthians or Thessalonians, who heard the good word from Paul but then still managed to get off track and be in need of further correction.

>> I'm looking at it from the perspective of trying to determine whether or not a religion is likely to be true. So I can't really avoid the category of "failed prophecy". Of course, this is one of the Hebrew Bible's own criteria (Deut. 18) for assessing a supposed prophet, so it seems like a fair standard to apply to Jesus.

>> But you don't seem to think the term "failed prophecy" is really appropriate in this case, and I have already asked you to expand on that.

Attempting to apply Deut 18 to apocalyptic would be like calling a parable or metaphorical language 'a lie' or 'untrue' - it's a category mistake. And of course, we have the wealth of later prophets as our witnesses to the effect that Deut. 18 would not have applied to this class (age-consummation, New Heavens New Earth, etc,, language). If it did, Isaiah, Haggai, Zechariah, Daniel, et al would be deemed 'false prophets' because their end-of-the-age/age-transition, and in some cases true apocalyptic, prophetic content did not come to completion in the 'expected' time frame - end of exile, post temple restoration, and end of Antiochene persecution respectively. And scripture even addresses this (an adjustment in expectations) directly in places like Jeremiah 18 in the OT and 2 Peter 3 in the new. (Yes, FP attempts to dismiss both passages, but they are simply subordinating those scriptures to their guiding paradigm, that the consummation and concomitant events had to happen in the 1st century at the fall of Jerusalem.)

>> "No, I do not off hand, but I'm sure full preterists have found quotes/sources and could provide them here."

>> I'm not so sure they have anything persuasive.

Again, there are quotes here and there - you provide one example from Eusebius - but an FP appeal to historic argument would be a construction mined from a few outlying exegetes. I agree with your sentiment.

Thank you, Greg, for a fun correspondence and for your patience. I am very busy and try not to let dealing with FP concerns dominate more than it should, which is hard, so it often will take some time for me to get back to you.

Peace,  

James

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A follow-up post on a point I missed:

I skipped this point (and probably others), my apology.

>> Another point here, is that if early Paul expected a near end, well did that influence any of his ethical teaching? Because if so, that teaching would then seem discredited.

Is 'discredited' the right category? I would instead say that ethical guidelines given in the light of his expectation should be exegeted and applied carefully, as we should do with all of scripture. It is no easy task, and too many pass it off as if it is a simple text approachable by all. But this is impossible, because we cannot (re)live the full context of the NT. There is a cultural translation that must take place, and it takes time and effort to do it justice.

As one simple example to your point: In I Cor 7 Paul encourages the Corinthians (who are being eyed with distrust by the pagans), generally to refrain from marriage, because "the time is short", and "this world in its present form is passing away." (And he has in mind the typical 2TJ apocalyptic understanding of world, as the Gentiles in Corinth would have seen little connection between the cessation of temple sacrifices and their practice of engagement and marriage under current persecution with the probably soon return of the Son of Man.)

Application: For us, the general lesson is that it will be easier to weather persecution and trial when you are not in the process of marrying a spouse. This admonishment could surely endure. Should we perceive ourselves again with our nose up against the age of the impending fullness of the kingdom? I don't think so, but again it does not rob all from the former facet, so maybe we should find another point that is wholly conditioned on the anticipated parousia. 

James

More on the varieties of preterists [continued]

Greg's (bskeptic) response:

Hi James, thanks for taking the time to reply.

Firstly, as it seems, I understand "partial preterist" in a different way to yourself. My preferred definition is that a partial preterist is someone who thinks that Matthew 24:30-31 was fulfilled in the first century, as do NT Wright and RT France. (But of course still look for a future 2nd Coming.)

If someone thinks, e.g., that the "great tribulation" was fulfilled in the first century, but Matthew 24:30-31 is still future, then I wouldn't personally regard it as "partial preterism". If such a thing is partial preterism, then I don't see why even self-professed dispensationalist "futurists" wouldn't qualify as partial preterists, because they can believe in *some* first century fulfillment, (e.g. Luke 21:20-24).

"there were many who argued for a pre-70 AD composition and some even a Jerusalem-centric (the city, not the spiritual people) judgment, but this view is almost non-existent among modern scholars given discoveries of more apocalyptic 2TJ texts and an enhanced understanding of the genre in the 20th century."

This is interesting to me. Could you expand a little? Could you recommend any books which cover this?

"While scholarly advocates of this position can be counted on one hand, this is a legitimate minority view given the quality advocates, particularly Caird."

As a skeptic I would say:

(a) Even Christians will find it far-fetched and implausible to separate those verses from "2nd Coming" material like 1 Thess 4.

(b) There is an obvious reason why they could be reaching for "far-fetched" explanations here: they think the scriptural evidence places the event in the first century, and Christians may not like the idea of failed prophecy. I believe Dale C. Allison points out that the behaviour of Wright etc. could be seen as falling into a well-known pattern of what happens when prophecies fail.

Do you know of any church fathers, or early Christian literature, which clearly teaches that Matthew 24:29-31 was fulfilled in the first century as Wright and France suggest?

Greg

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And my response:

Greg,

I'll try to respond to your points. Thank you for a cordial conversation.

>> Firstly, as it seems, I understand "partial preterist" in a different way to yourself. My preferred definition is that a partial preterist is someone who thinks that Matthew 24:30-31 was fulfilled in the first century, as do NT Wright and RT France. (But of course still look for a future 2nd Coming.)

You can define your terms how you like in this conversational context, Greg, so that's fine with me. I was attempting to provide a fuller context. For instance, 'preteristic' interpretation has normally been applied categorically as a hermeneutic to Revelation (less so now with Wright's prominence and discussion of his more unique interpretation) and not to the Olivet. But in this (full preterist) context (pretcosmos), expanding this to other texts was natural.

>> If someone thinks, e.g., that the "great tribulation" was fulfilled in the first century, but Matthew 24:30-31 is still future, then I wouldn't personally regard it as "partial preterism". If such a thing is partial preterism, then I don't see why even self-professed dispensationalist "futurists" wouldn't qualify as partial preterists, because they can believe in *some* first century fulfillment, (e.g. Luke 21:20-24).

That was my point, that almost everyone _is_ a partial preterist. But if we want to narrow that term, I am fine with that. An illustration of the 'problem' is that many might narrow "partial preterism" to refer to just the views of a small Reformed band (formerly) involved in a theonomic and Reconstructionist apologetic, which demanded a pre-70AD composition of the Apocalypse, when most preteristic commentaries on Revelation refer to Rome as the target of fulfillment and a later date of composition, and in this sense France and Caird would not be "partial preterists", though they are by your definition above.

Again, not an issue for our discussion, just an attempt to explain my effort in differentiating the flavors of preterists. In times past, and in some far corners of modern dispensational and other thought, there were/are actual full futurists in regards to the primary texts. In fact, as you will note when reading the commentaries (as per Allison (ICC), who you have had interaction with and I commend), some (even 'a number' of) scholars believe the Olivet was crafted after AD 70, and thus looked forward to a rebuilt temple (not uncommon to later 1st century Jewish hope and not unanticipated by Christians until the total crushing of the 2nd revolt). 

>> "there were many who argued for a pre-70 AD composition and some even a Jerusalem-centric (the city, not the spiritual people) judgment, but this view is almost non-existent among modern scholars given discoveries of more apocalyptic 2TJ texts and an enhanced understanding of the genre in the 20th century."

>> This is interesting to me. Could you expand a little? Could you recommend any books which cover this?

I'll admit that my quoted statement above is overly packed, so I'll need some clarification on which part you would like more comment or references for further reading. (For example, if it is the first point on 19th century pre-AD 70/early authorship, I would point to Hort, Lightfoot, Westcott, Schaff, Zahn, et al). :) 

>> "While scholarly advocates of this position can be counted on one hand, this is a legitimate minority view given the quality advocates, particularly Caird."

>> As a skeptic I would say:

>> (a) Even Christians will find it far-fetched and implausible to separate those verses from "2nd Coming" material like 1 Thess 4.

Correct (assuming you mean "Christian scholars" and that the common use of apocalyptic framing is intended to point to a complete(d) transition of the ages and the concomitant events: resurrection, final judgment, new heavens and new earth, etc.). Thus almost all of modern scholarship (and I am gleaning from them) agree that this is the context. An extended defense could be offered here, but you appear on board this this conclusion. :)

>> (b) There is an obvious reason why they could be reaching for "far-fetched" explanations here: they think the scriptural evidence places the event in the first century, and Christians may not like the idea of failed prophecy. I believe Dale C. Allison points out that the behaviour of Wright etc. could be seen as falling into a well-known pattern of what happens when prophecies fail.

Yes, the resurgence in preterist interest, particularly in the "emergent movement", probably points more to the apologetic advantage of brushing under the table some exegetical difficulties. However, the likes of Caird and France could hardly be maligned as motivated by an apologetic bias on the Olivet, which is laden with numerous exegetical difficulties/challenges. I would recommend reading the likes of Beasley-Murray's _Jesus and the Last Days_ (http://www.amazon.com/dp/1573833517) which provides a lengthy survey of the interpretation of the Olivet and Mark 13 particularly, followed by his commentary, invaluable for understanding the exegetical and redactional challenges inherent in the discourse.

This does not mean that scholarly consensus has not basically settled (it has; one may refer to the list provided before), but the door will never be closed all the way because of an inability to get back to the exact original spoken discourse (a difficulty given the synoptic disparities, etc.). I think Wright is wrong, and now the likes of consensus defenders Allison and Adams have had to spend time reminding people why he's wrong (again, probably because of the attractiveness of the apologetic simplicity of adapting the partial preterist (your definition) approach as you surmise). But I do not think the same charge could/should be levied against the scholarly defenders themselves, at least at this point (again France and Wright are following their mentor Caird's scholarship who followed an even earlier tradition and argument that dates back a few centuries).

And "failed prophecy" is a bit loaded (this is a quibble), as it belies a lack of contact with the purpose and modus operandi of apocalyptic and an inflation of expectation/anticipation to some kind of measurable prophetic.

 - Did the apostles and maybe Jesus as recorded in the synoptic gospels expect the consummation to follow the destruction of Jerusalem? Probably (again, the Olivet (and related) redaction is fragmented, so ironclad determinations of this sort are difficult if not impossible; I would point to targeted work by Ehrman and Allison in support).

 - Did (early) Paul expect a return of Christ in his lifetime? Almost certainly.

 - Does this equate to "failed prophecy"? Again, no. Expectations not met, probably, but even by Paul's later life (let's assume Pauline authorship of the disputed epistles for now, shall we?), the apocalyptic expectation is toned down considerably. And a couple of centuries after Christ, the church is hardly struggling with a shift in expectations from the early and apostolic church.

This is not to disagree with your point, but register my Christian perspective on the same data and the usage of "failed". (I affirm broadly Allison, Ehrman, Schweitzer, Weiss, et al on the Olivet but think this word choice can be unnecessarily inflammatory.)

>> Do you know of any church fathers, or early Christian literature, which clearly teaches that Matthew 24:29-31 was fulfilled in the first century as Wright and France suggest?

No, I do not off hand, but I'm sure full preterists have found quotes/sources and could provide them here. Eusebius, for instance, in the late 3rd and 4th centuries claimed past fulfillment of some apocalyptic NT texts, but I have not checked his commentary on the Olivet(s). Full preterists here would be happy I am sure to provide quotes to backup early support for this position, but as you probably are already aware, these positions were in the very small minority, were varied, and I do not think any of them can definitively be dated to before the middle of the 3rd century (if that early; I'm very open to correction). Frost's _Misplaced Hope_ (http://www.amazon.com/dp/0964138824) is probably the most thorough treatment from full preterists concerning the writings of the early church. I'll leave it to full preterists to provide specific quotes on the latter Olivet from the Fathers.

One could also poll France's extensive commentaries (Matthew (NICNT) and Mark (NIGTC)) for support. He vigorously defends his position and I've just not had time to refer to them for this quick note.

Thanks, Greg, for the discussion. I am sorry if I have missed or skipped anything. Please let me know and I will try to address what I can as I am able.

James

More on the varieties of preterists (from PretCosmos response)

I posted this morning in response to an inqury in a full preterist forum/email list run by full preterist Dave Green regarding the disagreements/different positions of 'partial-preterists' on varied passages. The original post by 'bskeptic':

[title: Partial preterist confusion by bskeptic]

I'm interested in the level of disagreement between partial preterists. Some examples: 

(1) Some of them will have a "switch" or "transition" at Matthew 24:36 to the subject of a future 2nd Coming. Other partial preterists would disagree. 

(2) For those who "switch", they can still disagree about the meaning of Matthew 24:27. (For as the lightning cometh out of the east, and shineth even unto the west; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.) 

(3) Related to the first example, I would guess that 1 Thess 5 is a matter of disagreement. 

(4) Matthew 13 and Matthew 16:27 can also be differently understood by partial preterists I think. 

Are there more examples of where partial preterists disagree about whether something is "AD70" or future 2nd Coming? 

Is there any disagreement about Acts 1:11? Or 2 Peter etc.?

I realize my original answer (below) is incomplete on a number of the passages brought up here, but I attempted to address the more major views in (orthodox) preterist circles:

bskeptic,

Going back to basic definitions, 'partial preterist', as pertaining to all of the major prophetic and apocalyptic portions of NT scripture, encompasses almost everyone in scholarly circles. There are only a few full futurist scholars (some older dispensationalist and more liberal scholars who view the gospel products, and particularly the Olivet discourse, as late 1st century or 2nd century products). And I'm not sure we have any full preterist scholars (there are some with seminary training but I do not believe there are any with doctoral (or greater) level accomplishments from a recognized institution).

The main breakdowns are:

1. On the Olivet Discourse

- Scholarly Majority View

The large majority of scholars place the division between the prophecy of destruction of the temple and the framing of that event with the apocalyptic consummation (Son of Man, judgment, implicit resurrection, NH/NE, etc.) prior to the cosmological signs. The majority is represented in recent Marcan commentaries by Lane (NIC), Gundry, Marcus (AB), Yarbro Collins (Herm), Evans (WBC), Geoffrey (FoBC), Garland (NIVAC), Ferguson (Let's Study), Edwards (PNTC), Cole (TNTC), Barclay (DSB), Brooks (NAC), Stein (BEC), Hendrickson (NTC), McKenna (CC), Hughes (PTW), and Hortado (NIBC), among many others. An even longer list could be produced for Matthew, but you get the idea. One should note that all of these men and their commentaries are well regarded and I'm not sure any of them could be labeled a dispensationalist. Maybe 85-90% of the scholars fall in this camp.

- Scholarly Minority View(s)

A small group regards the cosmological and Son of Man passages of the Olivet Discourse as pertaining to a type of 'coming' in the 1st century AD. Scholars representing this perspective are R. T. France (pertaining to most of the discourse; Mark (NIGTC), Matthew (NIC)) and Hatina, and G. B. Caird and N. T. Wright (pertains to all of the discourse, e.g. Matt. 24-25). It should be noted that France and Wright were both disciples of Caird. While scholarly advocates of this position can be counted on one hand, this is a legitimate minority view given the quality advocates, particularly Caird. Maybe 5% of the scholars fall in this camp. (The remainder are in other varieties and breakdowns.)

2. On the Book of Revelation

- Scholarly Majority View

There is close to complete agreement in the scholarship concerning both the date and target of the Apocalypse. The list of scholars and commentaries that advocate a later date of composition and Babylon as Rome is almost too many to count. As a sampling, scholars in agreement on these points include Caird, France, Beale, Bauckham, Collins, Yarbro Collins, Sweet, Swete, Beckwith, Charles, Rowland, Poellet, Witherington, Mounce, Osborne, Boring, Boxall (supports pre-70, post-Nero date), Johnson, Keener, Blount, Ladd, Morris, (Bruce) Metzger, and on and on. These positions are represented by probably 95+% of scholars today.

- Scholarly Minority Views 

There are a view scholars who have advocated different approaches, including most notably Ford (AB), who advocates an origin of the Apocalypse with John the Baptist. In previous centuries (notably the19th), there were many who argued for a pre-70 AD composition and some even a Jerusalem-centric (the city, not the spiritual people) judgment, but this view is almost non-existent among modern scholars given discoveries of more apocalyptic 2TJ texts and an enhanced understanding of the genre in the 20th century.

There have been some on the Reformed fringe who have advocated for the minority view on the Olivet and a pre-70 AD composition and Jerusalem centered focus in the Apocalypse. Many of these men are either current or former advocates of Theonomy and Reconstructionism (e.g. North, Gentry, DeMar, Jordan) or of the Federal Vision movement (Leithart, Wilson, Jordan again). Among these Leithart is probably the only one that approaches the status of 'scholar', but its a fringe perspective not in learned/academic interaction with the leading brains in the seminaries and academies (most of these men are pastors and not academicians/scholars). Of course, many in the full preterist camp, often reacting to dispensationalist excesses, latch onto works by the opposite fringe and often progress further ('more consistently') into full preterism.

Among scholars the Pauline passages are generally regarded as Apocalyptic, as (early) Paul language and sense of urgency is in tune with one informed by the genre (including elements also appealed to in the Olivet, though lacking the Jerusalem focused prophetic).

I hope that helps. Let me know if you need clarification or more references.

James